Is there a double standard in KJV-onlyism?
Would a change of pronouns in Joshua 8:2 in the NKJV from the KJV cause you to think it has discredited itself as a true translation from the Textus Receptus? If so, why would a similar, if not, greater difference in Ruth 3:15 between the KJV 1611 and 1769 not disturb a KJV-Onlyist as well?
https://youtu.be/3etl4jkMnrQ